Questions and Answers: Closed Question
Status: Closed
Anonymous @ 07:10 PM on 11 Jun, 2007
ND+ = ND*f_00 = ND/ + 2 exp/kT so degeneracy factor is 2 — this works fine …
However, if I apply the same formulation to holes and require that only (0000, 0001, 0010, 0100, 1000) states are possible, then I find …
NA- = NA1-f_0000 = NA* 4exp(-(EA-EF)/kT]/ 1 + 4 exp/kT) = NA/1+ exp/kT.
When I compare with textbooks, the sign and everything else is fine, but people write gA=4, but I find gA=1/4.
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Supriyo Datta @ 07:14 PM on 11 Jun, 2007
I would write NA- = NA * f_0000, rather than NA * – f_0000since 0000 is the state with one electron more than 0001, 0010, 0100 or 1000.
Also, E_0000 = 0, N_0000 = 0 E_0001 = E_0010 = E_0100 = E_1000 = – EA N_0001 = N_0010 = N_0100 = N_1000 = – 1
so that I get f_0000 = 1 / 1 + 4 exp(EA – Ef)/kT .. this seems to be in agreement with what you said the textbooks say ..
Makes sense?
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